by AzariLoveIran » Mon Oct 04, 2010 9:19 pm
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Iran had absolute Monarchy until 1906 when constitutional, parliamentary monarchy was introduced ..
Before 1906, Iran was same mindset, same idea, same concept, even much more authoritarian, let's say to, France ..
Was the laws of France, Germany (or England), before French revolution, when French kings were abolsute, were the laws according to Bible ? .. was Bible French consittuion ? ?
Chritianity condoned slavery, does it mean France and Germany had slavery ??
As said Iran had never slavery, nor sharia law ..
If Mongols, Tchingiz, when ruling Iran, had slaves .. or Ottoman Turks or Arabs or Alexander when ruling Iran had slaves, does not mean Iran had slavery ..
Iran is the inventor of human rights and equality for all humans, last 5000 yrs. .. Iranian civilization, literature from A to Z emphasizes this .. and you insist because Islam has slavery and Mullahs had influence and some dubious guy writes so, Iran had slavery ..
I have not encountered anything in recent Iranian history (last 200 yrs), the period that you talking about, that hints slightest to any slaves in Iran, let alone slavery ..
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